Table of Contents




Page No.


General Meteorology – PART-I



Answer Key (General Meteorology-I)



General Meteorology – PART-II



Answer Key (General Meteorology-II)



General Meteorology – PART-III



Answer Key (General Meteorology-III)



General Meteorology – PART-IV



Answer Key (General Meteorology-IV)



The Atmosphere



Answer Key (The Atmosphere)



Solar Radiation



Answer Key (Solar Radiation)






Answer Key (Climate)








QUESTIONS  (General Meteorology Part-I)

1. Match each cloud type to the letter best pertaining to its characteristics

___ cirrostratus          A. usually forms and disperses

                                         within 40 minutes

___ lenticular             B. associated with steady precipitation

___ nimbostratus        C. baglike; hangs on the undersides of a cloud

___ cirrocumulus       D. has a distinctive anvil top

___ mammatus           E. exhibits “mare’s tails”

___ cumulus humilis F. may be confused with UFOs

___ cirrus                    G. has fish scale-like small clouds

___ cumulonimbus     H. halos may form


2. Under what conditions is the atmosphere inherently unstable?

a) when the environmental lapse rate is greater than the dry adiabatic rate

b) when the environmental lapse rate is between the moist and dry adiabatic rates

c) when the environmental lapse rate is less than the moist adiabatic rate

d) when Eidan listens to dubstep


3. The term “rain shadow” refers to which of the following?

a) the decreased amount of sunlight that often occurs before precipitation

b) a scattered group of clouds that trails behind the remainder of a cold front

c) a region where precipitation is notably less because of a mountain barrier’s cooling of the air as it rises

d) a region where precipitation is notably less because of a mountain barrier’s warming of the air as it rises


4. Virga is best defined as:

a) meteorologists’ nickname for the Virgin Mary.

b) a hot, dry, dusty easterly wind that occurs in West Africa

c) a concentration of fine particles near the surface of the Earth

d) rain falling from a cloud that evaporates before it hits the ground

e) an accumulation of white or milky granular ice

5. Select all of the following that influence wind direction (there may be more than one answer):

a) pressure gradient force

b) Coriolis force

c) friction

d) elastic force

e) centripetal force


6. Match the following weather instruments with the correct description:

___ anemometer                     A. carried aboard weather balloons

___ radiosonde                       B. measures wind speed

___ hygrometer                      C. used in determining altitude

___ barometer                        D. contains a dry bulb and a wet bulb

___ sling psychrometer          E. measures humidity


7. Briefly describe the difference between sleet and freezing rain. Use of either the US or international definition of “sleet” will be accepted.


ANSWERS KEY (CHAPTER 1 – General Meteorology-Part I)

1. H, F, B, G, C, A, E, D [1 point for each letter]

2. A

3. C

4. D

5. A, B, C, E

6. B, A, E, C, D [1 point for each letter]

7. Sleet consists of ice pellets (OR partially-melted snow, as per the international definition) while freezing rain consists of supercooled droplets that freeze upon contact with a surface. [3 points; 1 point if only one of the definitions is correct]












QUESTIONS  (General Meteorology Part-II)

 1. The most common way for air to be cooled in order that a cloud may form is by

a) emitting radiation

b) rising and expanding

c) sinking and contracting

d) reflecting radiation

e) evaporating water

2. Why do clouds represent a source of heat for the atmosphere?

a) they increase the absorption of solar radiation

b) they conduct heat from the earth's surface

c) cloud formation releases latent heat to the air

d) melting ice crystals in the cloud absorb heat

e) evaporation of the droplets absorbs heat

3. The important difference between liquid droplets and ice crystals in a supercooled cloud is that ice crystals

a) are more pure

b) are smaller

c) increase the water vapor content of the cloud

d) grow much more rapidly

e) are colder

4. The cloud droplets in a cloud are formed by water vapor molecules and

a) molecules of air

b) other water vapor molecules

c) hygroscopoic nuclei

d) protons

e) ions

5. Inside of a cloud, how do the air temperature and the dew point compare to one another?

a) they are equal

b) air temperature exceeds dew point

c) dew point exceeds air temperature

d) there is no consistent relationship

6. Hygroscopoic nuclei may be formed from

a) particles of dust

b) nitric acid particles

c) smoke from forest fires

d) salt crystals from the ocean

e) all of the above

7. Clouds and precipitation form in the air primarily due to

a) moisture being added to the air

b) air being cooled as it rises

c) excessive numbers of hygroscopoic nuclei

d) release of latent heat

e) absorption of infrared radiation

8. The process by which a cloud droplet first forms is

a) condensation

b) evaporation

c) precipitation

d) collision and coalescence

e) supercooling

9. Freezing rain (ice storm) or sleet occurs when

a) upper air is cold and surface air is warm

b) both surface and upper air are cold

c) both surface and upper air are warm

d) upper air is warm and surface air is cold

10. A cumulus cloud is recognized mainly by its

a) obvious vertical dimension

b) darkness or color

c) precipitation

d) layered structure

e) association with high winds

11. Clouds are classified and named according to their altitude and

a) water content

b) temperature

c) size of droplets in the cloud

d) form or appearance

e) amount of precipitation produced

12. "Anvil head" is a term applied to:

a) cumulonimbus clouds

b) any high cloud

c) nimbostratus clouds

d) all clouds that form on the windward side of mountains

e) none of these

13. This method of frost prevention relies heavily on the release of latent heat of fusion:

a) orchard heaters

b) sprinklers

c) smudge pots

d) wind machines

e) all of these

14. Cloud seeding with silver iodide is based on the

a) Bergeron process

b) collision-coalescence process

c) both a and b

d) none of these

15. The air mass type most likely to form thunderstorms is

a) mT

b) mP

c) cT

d) cA

e) none of these

16. An air mass is a body of air with

a) equal density throughout

b) similar values of temperature and moisture in the horizontal

c) very high pressure everywhere

d) at least two frontal zones

e) very low humidity in its lower layers

17. Why are maritime air masses from the north Atlantic of only limited concern for weather in the U.S.?

a) they never cause severe storms

b) prevailing winds move them away from the U.S.

c) temperatures are usually mild over this region

d) polar fronts block these air masses from the U.S.

e) question is incorrect; these air masses are very important

18. Characteristics of an air mass source region include

a) sharp temperature contrasts

b) high elevation

c) uniformity of temperature and moisture

d) jet stream winds aloft

19. An air mass is often modified as it moves over the earth's surface. This modification is largely due to

a) jet streams above

b) clouds

c) strong pressure gradients

d) lifting along fronts

e) contact with the ground below

20. An air mass from the Gulf of Mexico is called:

a) cP

b) mP

c) cT

d) mT

21. A cT air mass is:

a) cold and dry

b) cold and humid

c) warm and dry

d) warm and humid

e) none of these

22. An mP air mass is:

a) dry and cold

b) humid and cold

c) dry and warm

d) humid and warm

e) none of these

23. The air masses that have the greatest influence on weather conditions in the Midwestern United States are:

a) cP and mT

b) mP and cP

c) cT and cP

d) mP and mT

e) mT and cT

24. A warm front is said to exist when

a) warm and cold air meet

b) invading cold air pushes underneath warmer air

c) moving cold air overrides warmer air

d) advancing warm air overrides retreating cold air

e) warm air pushes underneath cold air

25. The lifting of air and the resulting formation of clouds and rain is more gentle (gradual) for a

a) warm front

b) cold front

c) mesocyclone

d) occluded front

e) divergence zone

26. The approximate lifetime of a wave cyclone is

a) a month

b) 10 - 24 hours

c) 1 - 2 days

d) a few days to a week

e) 10 - 14 days

27. Why is the number and intensity of wave cyclones greatest during the late fall, winter and spring months?

a) air is drier then

b) density of the air is greatest

c) temperature contrasts are greater

d) temperatures are below freezing

e) meteorologists don't know

28. After a cold front passes, which of these does not usually occur?

a) marked temperature drop

b) wind direction shift

c) clearing skies

d) drop in relative humidity

e) falling barometer

29. The development of major winter storms in the midwest depends strongly on

a) wind speed near the surface

b) wind speed aloft

c) amount of snow already on the ground

d) air mass contrasts

e) rainfall amounts during the previous fall

30. Which of these is common to both cold and warm fronts?

a) light to calm winds

b) lifting of warm air over cold

c) decreasing precipitation rates

d) divergence of surface winds

e) steady barometer readings

31. Compared to other types of fronts, the weather associated with a cold front usually

a) covers more area

b) is less violent but of longer duration

c) involves less precipitation

d) is more violent but of shorter duration

e) does not involve thunderstorms

32. Another common term for the wave cyclone is:

a) tropical cyclone

b) anticyclone

c) polar-front cyclone

d) intertropical convergence zone

e) none of these

33. On a weather map, _____ fronts are shown with triangular points on one side of the front and semicircles on the other.

a) warm

b) cold

c) occluded

d) stationary


Refer to the diagram below of a mature wave cyclone.

34. Refer to Table 9-1:

Line A-B represents:

a) a cold front

b) an occlusion

c) a warm front

d) an isobar

e) none of these



35. Refer to Table 9-1, the lowest pressure would be found at which one of the following points?

a) point A

b) point B

c) point J

d) point D

e) point E

36. Refer to Table 9-1:

Which of the following best represents the wind direction at point H?

a) NE

b) E

c) NW

d) SW

e) SE

37. Refer to Table 9-1: Which of the stations listed below should have the highest temperature?

a) point A

b) point E

c) point F

d) point H

e) point J

38. Refer to Table 9-1:

A low-flying aircraft heading from point J to point H would most likely experience which of the following changes in wind direction?

a) SE to SW to NW

b) NE to N to NW

c) SW to SE to NE

d) N to S to W

e) E to W to NE


39. Refer to Table 9-1:

Line A-D probably represents:

a) a cold front

b) a warm front

c) an occluded front

d) a stationary front

40. Refer to Table 9-1:

Of the stations listed below, which one most likely has the least rain and cloud cover?

a) point A

b) point B

c) point G

d) point I

e) point H

41. Over the last 20 years, which of these has caused the fewest weather related deaths in the U.S.?

a) lightning

b) floods

c) tornadoes

d) hurricanes

42. What causes the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm?

a) spreading downdraft cuts off air inflow

b) release of latent heat within the cloud

c) converging surface winds

d) converging winds aloft

e) loss of radiant energy from cloud top

43. Why do most tornadoes in the central U.S. occur during the spring months?

a) upper-air temperatures are warmest

b) air-mass contrasts are greatest

c) divergence of air aloft is greatest

d) surface air is most humid

e) solar energy is a maximum

44. Why is strong heating of the ground by the sun associated with thunderstorms?

a) leads to greater instability

b) reduces the relative humidity

c) reduces the dew point

d) increases the pressure gradient

e) increases the wind speed

45. The gust front occurs

a) on the lee shore of the Great Lakes

b) near the anvil part of a thunderstorm cloud

c) during the development of thunderstorm clouds

d) at the leading edge of a thunderstorm downdraft

46. Thunderstorm tops most likely occur

a) in the lower troposphere

b) in the mesosphere

c) near the tropopause

d) in the middle stratosphere

47. A tornado is a small, very intense example of the

a) cyclone

b) anticyclone

c) coriolis effect

d) geostrophic wind

e) jet stream

48. Hurricanes and midlatitude cyclones are similar in that:

a) both are areas of low pressure

b) both have conspicuous surface fronts

c) both are most common and well-developed in the winter season

d) both form in the trade-wind belt

49. The terms leader, flash, and stroke are used when describing:

a) a tornado

b) the stages of a thunderstorm

c) the passage of a hurricane

d) squall line formation

e) none of these

50. Which of the following should have the steepest pressure gradient?

a) tornado

b) middle-latitude cyclone

c) hurricane

d) a, b and c should have equally steep pressure gradients

e) both a and c have equally steep pressure gradients

51. Tornadoes most often move toward what direction?

a) west

b) southeast

c) northeast

d) northwest

e) southwest

52. "Heat lightning":

a) is brighter than ordinary lightning

b) is also called "ball lightning"

c) occurs more than 20 kilometers from the person observing it

d) is actually a display of the northern lights

53. The formation of tornadoes is associated with:

a) severe thunderstorms

b) cold fronts

c) middle-latitude cyclones

d) all of the above

54. Downdrafts and updrafts found side by side relate to the __________________ in the development of a thunderstorm.

a) cumulus stage

b) mature stage

c) dissipating stage

55. Downdrafts totally dominate the ________________ in the development of a thunderstorm.

a) cumulus stage

b) mature stage

c) dissipating stage

56. Since detection and tracking of hurricanes is now quite accurate, why does damage from these storms continue to increase?

a) poor forecasts of landfall area

b) hurricane intensity is greater

c) changes in tidal patterns

d) continued development of coastal areas

57. The initial detection and monitoring of tropical storms that may become hurricanes is accomplished by

a) satellites

b) ocean buoys

c) aircraft

d) ocean ships

e) coastal observers

58. What general circulation wind belt is the place of origin for hurricanes?

a) westerlies

b) doldrums

c) trade winds

d) horse latitudes

59. Why do surface wind speeds increase toward the center of a hurricane?

a) reduced friction

b) stronger Coriolis effect

c) warmer water

d) conservation of angular momentum

60. What type of clouds is most common in a hurricane?

a) cirrus

b) stratus

c) nimbostratus

d) cumulonimbus


61. Why do hurricanes initially form only in the tropics?

a) stronger pressure gradients are found there

b) warm water temperatures are found there

c) subsiding air currents are found there

d) Coriolis is weaker there

62. What determines when a tropical depression or storm is given hurricane status?

a) wind speed

b) central pressure

c) diameter

d) water temperature

63. What causes the winds of a hurricane to be so fast?

a) stronger Coriolis force

b) weaker Coriolis force

c) very strong pressure gradient force

d) coupling with the jet stream

e) tidal effects

64. Hurricanes generally are:

a) larger than tornadoes

b) smaller than midlatitude cyclones

c) areas of heavy rainfall and strong winds

d) most common in late summer and early fall

e) all of these

65. During which of the time spans listed below should hurricane formation in the North Atlantic be at a peak?

a) January-February

b) April-May

c) August-September

d) November-December

66. Adiabatic processes are only important for air

a) which is rising or sinking

b) that is stagnant

c) masses which remain near the earth's surface

d) that is polluted

e) that is saturated


67. The vertical motions that occur when the air is unstable are termed

a) convergence

b) subsidence

c) cyclonic

d) geostrophic

e) convection

68. The buoyancy of a rising air parcel is greatly affected by

a) wind speed

b) air pressure

c) heat released if water vapor condenses

d) absorption of solar radiation

e) convergence of the parcel

69. A stable atmosphere is one in which

a) air layers are at their lowest elevations

b) temperatures are adiabatic

c) vertical motions are resisted

d) clouds are forming

e) rising bubbles of air accelerate upward

70. The stability of an air layer refers to its

a) albedo

b) average temperature

c) pressure as measured at its base

d) tendency to either sustain or suppress vertical motions

e) overall density

71. An adiabatic process is one in which the

a) altitude of the air parcel remains constant

b) heat exchanged with the surroundings is zero

c) pressure on the air parcel remains constant

d) temperature remains constant

e) work done is zero

72. The heat released when water vapor condenses to form a cloud or when liquid droplets freeze in a cloud

a) makes the air heavier

b) cools off the cloud

c) evaporates more water

d) helps the cloud to rise higher

e) adds water to the cloud

73. The most important process of cloud formation in the atmosphere is:

a) cooling by compression of air

b) cooling by release of latent heat of vaporization

c) cooling by expansion of air

d) radiation cooling

e) cooling by contact with a cold surface

74. Which of the following would not be associated with stable atmospheric conditions?

a) widespread fog

b) temperature inversion

c) dreary overcast with light drizzle

d) buildup of pollutants

e) afternoon thundershowers

75. A parcel of air has a temperature of 0OC as it crosses a mountain range at 3000 meters. If it descends, what will its temperature be when it reaches sea level?

a) 15OC

b) 30OC

c) 0OC

d) 40OC

e) none of these

76. Deserts such as the Great Basin, Gobi, and Takla Makan are examples of:

a) chinook deserts

b) subtropical deserts

c) rain shadow deserts

d) monsoon deserts

e) none of these

77. Each of the statements refer to the approach or to the passage of a front. If the statement refers to the approach of a typical cold front, use the letter A for your answer. If the statement refers to the approach or passage of a typical warm front, use the letter B. Pressure tendency falling.


78. Clear skys are associated with subsidence or sinking motion.

79. Adiabatic temperature changes refer to parcels of air that rise or sink.

















ANSWERS KEY (CHAPTER 1 – General Meteorology-Part II)


















QUESTIONS  (General Meteorology Part-III)

____ 1. In a volume of air near the earth's surface, ____ occupies 78 percent and ____ nearly 21 percent.

a. nitrogen, oxygen

b. hydrogen, oxygen

c. oxygen, hydrogen

d. nitrogen, water vapor

e. hydrogen, helium


____ 2. The amount of force exerted over an area of surface is called:

a. density.

b. weight.

c. temperature.

d. pressure.


____ 3. Much of Tibet lies at altitudes over 18,000 feet where the pressure is about 500 mb. At such altitudes, the Tibetans are above roughly:

a. 10 percent of the air molecules in the atmosphere.

b. 25 percent of the air molecules in the atmosphere.

c. 50 percent of the air molecules in the atmosphere.

d. 75 percent of the air molecules in the atmosphere.

e. 90 percent of the air molecules in the atmosphere.


____ 4. The planet with a strong greenhouse effect, whose surface temperature averages 480°C (900°F) is:

a. Earth.

b. Venus.

c. Mars.

d. Pluto.

e. none of these


____ 5. In the stratosphere, the air temperature normally:

a. decreases with increasing height.

b. increases with increasing height.

c. both increases and decreases depending on the season.

d. cannot be measured.


____ 6. The most abundant gas in the stratosphere is:

a. oxygen (O2).

b. nitrogen (N2).

c. carbon dioxide (CO2).

d. ozone (O3).

e. chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).


____ 7. Scientists are able to determine the air temperature in the thermosphere by:

a. using radiosondes.

b. using temperature probes in orbiting satellites.

c. observing changes in satellite orbits.

d. direct measurements in manned, high-altitude balloons.

____ 8. The rate at which temperature decreases with increasing altitude is known as the:

a. temperature slope.

b. lapse rate.

c. sounding.

d. thermocline.

____ 9. Meteorology is the study of:

a. landforms.

b. the oceans.

c. the atmosphere.

d. outer space.

e. extraterrestrial meteoroids that enter the atmosphere.

____ 10. Where cold surface air replaces warm air, the boundary separating the different bodies of air is:

a. a parallel of latitude.

b. a tornado.

c. a cold front.

d. a warm front.

____ 11. The horizontal extent of the ozone hole can sometimes exceed the size of the Antarctic continent.

a. true

b. false

____ 12. About ____ of the meteorologists and atmospheric scientists in the United States work in the field of weather forecasting.

a. one-tenth

b. one-half

c. three-quarters

d. nine-tenths

____ 13. Meteorology is considered a branch of:

a. mineralogical sciences.

b. phenology.

c. phrenology.

d. atmospheric sciences.

____ 14. Heat waves are generally considered to be little more than a nuisance and are not responsible for considerable loss of life.

a. true

b. false

____ 15. Energy of motion is also known as:

a. dynamic energy.

b. kinetic energy.

c. sensible heat energy.

d. static energy.

e. latent heat energy.

____ 16. The heat energy released when water vapor changes to a liquid is called:

a. latent heat of evaporation.

b. latent heat of fusion.

c. latent heat of fission.

d. latent heat of condensation.

____ 17. When water changes from a liquid to a vapor, we call this process:

a. freezing.

b. condensation.

c. sublimation.

d. deposition.

e. evaporation.

____ 18. The term "latent" means:

a. late.

b. hot.

c. light.

d. hidden.

e. dense.


____ 19. The processes of condensation and freezing:

a. both release sensible heat into the environment.

b. both absorb sensible heat from the environment.

c. do not affect the temperature of their surroundings.

d. do not involve energy transport.

____ 20. The sun emits a maximum amount of radiation at wavelengths near ____, while the earth emits maximum radiation near wavelengths of ____.

a. 0.5 micrometers, 30 micrometers

b. 0.5 micrometers, 10 micrometers

c. 10 micrometers, 30 micrometers

d. 1 micrometer, 10 micrometers


____ 21. Which of the following has a wavelength shorter than that of violet light?

a. green light

b. blue light

c. infrared radiation

d. red light

e. ultraviolet radiation


____ 22. At which temperature would the earth be radiating energy at the greatest rate or intensity?

a. -5°F

b. -40°F

c. 60°F

d. 32°F

e. 105°F


____ 23. If the earth's average surface temperature were to increase, the amount of radiation emitted from the earth's surface would ____, and the wavelength of peak emission would shift toward ____ wavelengths.

a. increase; shorter

b. increase; longer

c. decrease; shorter

d. decrease; longer


____ 24. Of the gases listed below, which is NOT believed to be responsible for enhancing the earth's greenhouse effect?

a. chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

b. molecular oxygen (O2)

c. nitrous oxide (N2O)

d. carbon dioxide (CO2)

e. methane (CH4)


____ 25. An increase in albedo would be accompanied by ____ in radiative equilibrium temperature.

a. an increase

b. a decrease

c. no change

d. unstable oscillations


____ 26. If the amount of energy lost by the earth to space each year were not approximately equal to that received,

a. the atmosphere's average temperature would change.

b. the length of the year would change.

c. the sun's output would change.

d. the mass of the atmosphere would change.

____ 27. Charged particles from the sun that travel through space at high speeds are called:

a. radiation.

b. the aurora.

c. solar wind.

d. solar flares.



____ 28. The aurora is produced by:

a. reflections of sunlight by polar ice fields.

b. fast-moving charged particles colliding with air molecules.

c. burning oxygen caused by the intense sunlight at high altitude.

d. the combination of molecular and atomic oxygen to form ozone.

e. scattering of sunlight in the upper atmosphere.


____ 29. In the figure below, energy is being transported ____.

a. upward

b. downward

____ 30. Sunlight passes through a thicker portion of the atmosphere at:

a. sunrise.

b. noon.

c. sunset.

d. night.

e. both sunrise and sunset.

____ 31. The geographical pattern of average air temperature near sea level is ____ homogeneous in the southern hemisphere as compared to the northern hemisphere.

a. less

b. more

____ 32. The main reason(s) for warm summers in middle latitudes is that:

a. the earth is closer to the sun in summer.

b. the sun is higher in the sky and we receive more direct solar radiation.

c. the days are longer.

d. all of these

e. b and c only

____ 33. In July, at middle latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere, the day is ____ long and is ____ with each passing day.

a. less than 12 hours; getting longer

b. less than 12 hours; getting shorter

c. more than 12 hours; getting longer

d. more than 12 hours; getting shorter


____ 34. Assuming that the night will remain clear, calm, and unsaturated, the predicted minimum temperature is 32°F. Suddenly the wind speed increases and remains gusty throughout the night. The minimum temperature will most likely be:

a. about the same as predicted but will occur earlier in the night.

b. higher than predicted due to the release of latent heat.

c. much lower than predicted due to radiational cooling.

d. higher than predicted due to mixing.


____ 35. Two objects, A and B, have the same mass but the specific heat of A is larger than B. If both objects absorb equal amounts of energy,

a. A will become warmer than B.

b. B will become warmer than A.

c. both A and B will warm at the same rate.

d. A will get warmer, but B will get colder.    


____ 36. The air temperature is 45°F, the wind is blowing at 30 MPH, and the wind chill temperature is 15°F. These conditions would be equivalent to:

a. a 15°F air temperature and 0 MPH winds.

b. a 30°F air temperature and 45 MPH winds.

c. a 30°F air temperature and 15 MPH winds.

d. a 15°F air temperature and 30 MPH winds.

____ 37. More solar radiation is received at the:

a. earth's surface.

b. top of the atmosphere.

c. north and south poles.

____ 38. In the northern hemisphere, north-facing hillsides have a ____ growing season than south-facing hillsides.

a. shorter

b. longer

____ 39. In the northern hemisphere, a solar panel should be placed on the side of the roof facing:

a. east.

b. west.

c. north.

d. south.

____ 40. A strong radiation inversion is more likely to occur on a:

a. warm, windy night.

b. cool, windy night.

c. rainy night with light winds.

d. clear night with light winds.

____ 41. When the air is saturated, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a. The air temperature equals the wet-bulb temperature.

b. The relative humidity is 100 percent.

c. The air temperature equals the dew point temperature.

d. An increase in temperature will cause condensation to occur.

e. The wet bulb temperature equals the dew point temperature.

____ 42. If all the water vapor in the atmosphere were to condense and fall to the ground, the globe would be covered with about ____ of water.

a. 1 millimeter

b. 1 inch

c. 1 foot

d. 1 meter

____ 43. The total mass of water vapor stored in the atmosphere at any moment is about ____ of the world's supply of precipitation.

a. 1 day

b. 1 week

c. 1 month

d. 1 year        


____ 44. Which of the following will increase in a rising parcel of air?

a. saturation vapor pressure

b. relative humidity

c. mixing ratio

d. air temperature

e. none of these

____ 45. If water vapor comprises 3.5 percent of an air parcel whose total pressure is 1,000 mb, the water vapor pressure would be:

a. 1,035 mb.

b. 35 mb.

c. 350 mb.

d. 965 mb.

____ 46. When the air temperature is below freezing, the saturation vapor pressure over water is ____.

a. equal to zero

b. less than the saturation vapor pressure over ice

c. greater than the saturation vapor pressure over ice

d. equal to the saturation vapor pressure over ice

____ 47. The percentage of water vapor present in the air compared to that required for saturation is the:

a. mixing ratio.

b. absolute humidity.

c. dew point.

d. relative humidity.

e. specific humidity.

____ 48. The time of day when the relative humidity reaches a maximum value is usually:

a. at the time when the air temperature is highest

b. in the middle of the afternoon

c. at the time when the air temperature is lowest

d. just before sunrise

e. about midnight

____ 49. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a. The length of human hair changes as the relative humidity changes.

b. During the winter, low relative humidity can irritate the mucus membranes in the nose and throat.

c. The relative humidity is a measure of the air's actual water vapor content.

d. A change in the air temperature can change the relative humidity.

____ 50. The name given to a liquid drop of dew that freezes when the air temperature drops below freezing is:

a. frost.

b. black frost.

c. hoarfrost.

d. white frost.

e. frozen dew.      

____ 51. Suppose it is a winter night and at about 11 p.m., the air cools to the dew-point temperature and a thick radiation fog develops. If the air continues to cool during the night, in 5 hours the dew point temperature will probably:

a. decrease as the air becomes drier.

b. decrease as the air becomes moister.

c. increase as the air becomes drier.

d. increase as the air becomes moister.


____ 52. Frost typically forms on the inside of a windowpane (rather than the outside) because:

a. the inside of the pane is colder than the outside.

b. there is more water vapor touching the inside of the pane.

c. there is less water vapor touching the inside of the pane.

____ 53. Condensation nuclei may be:    

a. particles of dust.

b. nitric acid particles.

c. smoke from forest fires.

d. salt from the ocean.

e. all of these

____ 54. Fog that forms off the coast of Newfoundland is mainly a form of:

a. advection fog.

b. frontal fog.

c. steam fog.

d. radiation fog.

e. upslope fog.

____ 55. Fog that most often forms as warm rain falls into a cold layer of surface air is called:

a. radiation fog.

b. evaporation (mixing) fog.

c. advection fog.

d. upslope fog.

____ 56. Fog is a major hazard to aviation.

a. true

b. false

____ 57. At which city might you be able to observe cirrus clouds at an altitude of 3,000 m (10,000 feet) above the surface?

a. Barrow, Alaska

b. Honolulu, Hawaii

c. Miami, Florida

d. Chicago, Illinois

____ 58. A dim, "watery" sun visible through a gray sheet-like cloud layer is often a good indication of ____ clouds.

a. stratocumulus

b. cirrostratus

c. cumulonimbus

d. altostratus

e. nimbostratus  

____ 59. Towering cumulus (cumulus congestus) would refer to which of the clouds sketched below?   

     a.            a

b.            b

c.            c     


____ 60. Suppose two unsaturated air masses mix horizontally. The resulting mixture cannot possibly be saturated.

a. true

b. false

____ 61. Typically, water vapor occupies about what percentage of the air's volume near the earth's surface?

a. about 78 percent

b. about 21 percent

c. close to 10 percent

d. less than 4 percent

e. none of these

____ 62. The unit of pressure most commonly found on a surface weather map is:

a. inches of mercury (Hg).

b. millibars or hectopascals.

c. pounds per square inch.

d. millimeters of mercury (Hg).

____ 63. The gas responsible for the greenhouse effect on Venus is:

a. carbon dioxide (CO2).

b. oxygen (O2).

c. ozone (O3).

d. nitrogen (N2).

e. water vapor (H2O).

____ 64. Carbon dioxide is a naturally-occurring component of the atmosphere.

a. true

b. false

____ 65. The atmospheric layer in which we live is called the:

a. troposphere.

b. stratosphere.

c. thermosphere.

d. ionosphere.

e. exosphere.      


____ 66. In the middle latitudes of the Northern Hemisphere, surface winds tend to blow ____ and ____ around an area of surface low pressure.

a. clockwise; inward

b. clockwise; outward

c. counterclockwise; inward

d. counterclockwise; outward

____ 67. A change of one degree on the Celsius scale is ____ a change of one degree on the Fahrenheit scale.

a. equal to

b. larger than

c. smaller than

d. is in the opposite direction of

____ 68. The temperature scale where 0° represents freezing and 100° boiling is called:

a. Fahrenheit.

b. Celsius.

c. Kelvin.

d. absolute.

____ 69. The transfer of heat by molecule-to-molecule contact is:

a. conduction.

b. convection.

c. radiation.

d. ultrasonic.

____ 70. How do red and blue light differ?

a. Blue light has a higher speed of propagation.

b. The wavelength of red light is longer.

c. Red light has a higher intensity.

d. Red and blue light have different directions of polarization.

____ 71. Solar radiation reaches the earth's surface as:

a. visible radiation only.

b. ultraviolet radiation only.

c. infrared radiation only.

d. visible and infrared radiation only.

e. ultraviolet, visible, and infrared radiation.

____ 72. The earth emits radiation with greatest intensity at:

a. infrared wavelengths.

b. radio wavelengths.

c. visible wavelengths.

d. ultraviolet wavelengths.

____ 73. The earth's atmospheric window is in the:

a. ultraviolet region.

b. visible region.

c. infrared region.

d. polar regions.   


____ 74. Suppose last night was clear and calm. Tonight low clouds will be present. From this you would conclude that tonight's minimum temperature will be:

a. higher than last night's minimum temperature.

b. lower than last night's minimum temperature.

c. the same as last night's minimum temperature.

d. above freezing.

____ 75. The combined albedo of the earth and the atmosphere is approximately ____ percent.

a. 4

b. 10

c. 30

d. 50

e. 90

____ 76. Sunlight that bounces off a surface is said to be ____ from the surface.

a. radiated

b. absorbed

c. emitted

d. reflected

____ 77. The earth's radiative equilibrium temperature is:

a. the temperature at which the earth is absorbing solar radiation and emitting infrared radiation at equal rates.

b. the temperature at which the earth is radiating energy at maximum intensity.

c. the average temperature the earth must maintain to prevent the oceans from freezing solid.

d. the temperature at which rates of evaporation and condensation on the earth are in balance.

____ 78. During the course of a year, the sun will disappear from view near the North Pole on what date?

a. June 21

b. September 23

c. December 23

d. January 1

e. March 21

____ 79. The maximum in daytime surface temperature typically occurs ____ the earth receives its most intense solar radiation.

a. before

b. after

c. exactly when

____ 80. To protect fruit trees from frost, it is important to keep the air as still as possible.

a. true

b. false  


____ 81. At the North Pole the sun will rise above the horizon on ____ and set below the horizon on ____.

a. June 22; September 23

b. September 23; December 22

c. March 21; September 23

d. June 22; December 22

e. March 21; December 22

____ 82. The earth is tilted at an angle of 23.5° with respect to the plane of its orbit around the sun. If the amount of tilt were increased to 40°, we would expect in middle latitudes:

a. hotter summers and colder winters than at present.

b. cooler summers and milder winters than at present.

c. hotter summers and milder winters than at present.

d. cooler summers and colder winters than at present.

e. no appreciable change from present conditions.

____ 83. The term "normal" refers to weather data averaged over:

a. at least a day.

b. several months.

c. one year.

d. thirty years.

____ 84. The greatest variation in daily temperature usually occurs:

a. at the ground.

b. about 5 feet above the ground.

c. at the top of a high-rise apartment complex.

d. at the level where thermals stop rising.

____ 85. In most areas, the warmest time of the day about 5 feet above the ground occurs:

a. around noon.

b. in the afternoon between 3 and 5 p.m.

c. in the early evening after 6 p.m.

d. just before the sun sets.

____ 86. Which of the following can be used as a method of protecting an orchard from damaging low temperatures during a radiation inversion?

a. orchard heaters

b. wind machines

c. irrigation (cover the area with water)

d. all of these

____ 87. When a liquid thermometer is held in direct sunlight,

a. it will accurately measure the air temperature.

b. it will measure a much higher temperature than that of the air.

c. it will measure a much lower temperature than that of the air.

d. it will measure the temperature of the sun rather than the air.    


____ 88. An ideal shelter for housing a temperature-measurement instrument should be:

a. white.

b. black.

c. in the shade.

d. both white and in the shade.

e. both black and in the shade.

____ 89. The relative humidity is often near 100 percent in the polar regions.

a. true

b. false

____ 90. If the air temperature remains constant, evaporating water into the air will ____ the dew point and ____ the relative humidity.

a. increase; increase

b. increase; decrease

c. decrease; increase

d. decrease; decrease

____ 91. The temperature to which air must be cooled in order to become saturated is the:

a. minimum temperature.

b. dew point temperature.

c. wet-bulb temperature.

d. freezing point.

____ 92. Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the actual amount of water vapor in the air?

a. air temperature

b. saturation vapor pressure

c. relative humidity

d. dew point temperature

____ 93. The lowest temperature that can be attained by evaporating water into the air is known as the:

a. heat index.

b. minimum temperature.

c. wet-bulb temperature.

d. frost point.

e. wind chill temperature.

____ 94. Frost forms when:

a. objects on the ground cool below the dew point temperature.

b. the dew point is 32°F or below.

c. water vapor changes into ice without first becoming a liquid.

d. all of the above

____ 95. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a. The largest concentration of condensation nuclei are usually observed near the Earth's surface.

b. Wet haze restricts visibility more than dry haze.

c. Fog is actually a cloud resting on the ground.

d. With the same water vapor content, fog that forms in dirty air is usually thicker than fog that forms in cleaner air.

e. All of these are correct.          


____ 96. Which statement(s) below is/are correct?

a. Valleys are more susceptible to radiation fog than hill tops.

b. Without the summer fog along the coast of California, redwoods would not grow well there.

c. Fog can be composed of ice crystals.

d. All of the above are correct.

____ 97. Which association below is not correct?

a. cumulus congestus - anvil top

b. cumulus - fair weather cumulus

c. altocumulus castellanus - resemble "little castles"

d. stratus fractus - scud

e. cumulonimbus - thunderstorm clouds

____ 98. In middle latitudes, which cloud will have the lowest base?

a. cirrostratus

b. stratocumulus

c. altocumulus

d. cirrus

____ 99. At middle latitudes, the base of an altostratus or altocumulus cloud would generally be found between:

a. 200 and 6,500 feet.

b. 6,500 and 23,000 feet.

c. 23,000 and 43,000 feet.

d. above 43,000 feet.

____100. When clouds are viewed near the horizon, the individual cloud elements usually:

a. appear closer together than is actually the case.

b. appear farther apart than is actually the case.

c. appear lighter in color than is actually the case.

d. appear to have more vertical development than is actually the case.

____101. Infrared and visible satellite images might provide:

a. a way of determining cloud thickness and altitude.

b. a way of distinguishing between wet and dry clouds.

c. a way of identifying clouds suitable for cloud seeding.

d. a way of distinguishing between "new" and "old" clouds.

____102. Stratus clouds are typically puffy and form by convection.

a. true

b. false



ANSWERS KEY (CHAPTER 1 – General Meteorology-Part III)

1. ANS: A                    2. ANS: D                    3. ANS: C

4. ANS: B                     5. ANS: B                     6. ANS: B

7. ANS: C                     8. ANS: B                     9. ANS: C

10. ANS: C                   11. ANS: A                   12. ANS: B

13. ANS: D                   14. ANS: B                   15. ANS: B

16. ANS: D                   17. ANS: E                   18. ANS: D

19. ANS: A                   20. ANS: B                   21. ANS: E

22. ANS: E                   23. ANS: A                   24. ANS: B

25. ANS: B                   26. ANS: A                   27. ANS: C

28. ANS: B                   29. ANS: A                   30. ANS: E

31. ANS: B                   32. ANS: E                   33. ANS: D

34. ANS: D                   35. ANS: B                   36. ANS: A

37. ANS: B                   38. ANS: A                   39. ANS: D

40. ANS: D                   41. ANS: D                   42. ANS: B

43. ANS: B                   44. ANS: B                   45. ANS: B

46. ANS: C                   47. ANS: D                   48. ANS: C

49. ANS: C                   50. ANS: E                   51. ANS: A

52. ANS: B                   53. ANS: E                   54. ANS: A

55. ANS: B                   56. ANS: A                   57. ANS: A

58. ANS: D                   59. ANS: B                   60. ANS: B

61. ANS: D                   62. ANS: B                   63. ANS: A

64. ANS: A                   65. ANS: A                   66. ANS: C

67. ANS: B                   68. ANS: B                   69. ANS: A

70. ANS: B                   71. ANS: E                   72. ANS: A

73. ANS: C                   74. ANS: A                   75. ANS: C

76. ANS: D                   77. ANS: A                   78. ANS: B

79. ANS: B                   80. ANS: B                   81. ANS: C      

82. ANS: A                   83. ANS: D                   84. ANS: A

85. ANS: B                   86. ANS: D                   87. ANS: B

88. ANS: D                   89. ANS: A                   90. ANS: A

91. ANS: B                   92. ANS: D                   93. ANS: C

94. ANS: D                   95. ANS: E                   96. ANS: D

97. ANS: A                   98. ANS: B                   99. ANS: B

100. ANS: A                 101. ANS: A                 102. ANS: B





















QUESTIONS  (General Meteorology Part-IV)

____ 1. Which cloud type would most likely form in absolutely stable air?

a. cumulus congestus

b. cumulonimbus

c. stratus

d. altocumulus

____ 2. Which of the following sets of conditions would produce a cumulus cloud with the lowest base?

a. air temperature 90°F, dew point temperature 50°F

b. air temperature 90°F, dew point temperature 40°F

c. air temperature 90°F, dew point temperature 60°F

d. air temperature 90°F, dew point temperature 20°F

____ 3. During the ice crystal process of rain formation,

a. only ice crystals need be present in a cloud.

b. ice crystals grow larger at the expense of the surrounding liquid cloud droplets.

c. the temperature in the cloud must be -40°C (-40°F) or below.

d. the cloud must be a cumuliform cloud.

____ 4. The unit of pressure most commonly found on a surface weather map is:

a. inches of mercury.

b. millibars or hectopascals.

c. pounds per square inch.

d. atmospheres.

____ 5. The majority of the United States lies within which wind belt?

a. westerlies

b. easterlies

c. northerlies

d. trades

e. southerlies

____ 6. Which of the following would increase the environmental lapse rate?

a. cold advection at higher altitudes

b. daytime solar heating

c. surface radiational cooling

d. all of these

e. both cold advection at higher altitudes and daytime solar heating

____ 7. The rate at which the actual air temperature changes with increasing height above the surface is referred to as the:

a. environmental lapse rate.

b. dry adiabatic rate.

c. moist adiabatic rate.

d. thermocline.

____ 8. At the earth's surface, a rising saturated air parcel would cool most rapidly when its temperature is:

a. 10°F.

b. 32°F.

c. 50°F.

d. 68°F.

e. 80°F.

____ 9. A completely dry air parcel which first rises and cools, and subsequently sinks and warms, is undergoing:

a. an irreversible pseudoadiabatic process.

b. a reversible adiabatic process.

c. an irreversible adiabatic process.

____ 10. The dry adiabatic lapse rate is ____ greater than the moist adiabatic lapse rate.

a. never

b. sometimes

c. always

____ 11. The most latent heat would be released in a ____ parcel of ____ saturated air.

a. rising; warm

b. rising; cold

c. sinking; warm

d. sinking; cold

____ 12. Which of the following conditions would be described as the most stable?

a. Environmental lapse rate is 13°C per kilometer.

b. Environmental lapse rate is 3°C per kilometer.

c. isothermal conditions

d. an inversion

____ 13. Which of the following environmental lapse rates would represent the most unstable atmosphere in a layer of unsaturated air?

a. 3°C per 1,000 m

b. 6°C per 1,000 m

c. 9°C per 1,000 m

d. 11°C per 1,000 m

____ 14. In a conditionally unstable atmosphere, the environmental lapse rate will be ____ than the moist adiabatic rate and ____ than the dry adiabatic rate.

a. greater; less

b. greater; greater

c. less; greater

d. less; less

____ 15. If unsaturated stable air is lifted to a level where it becomes saturated and unstable, this type of instability is called:

a. conditional instability.

b. convective instability.

c. baroclinic instability.

d. forced instability.

____ 16. Which cloud type below would most likely form in an unstable atmosphere?

a. cumulonimbus

b. stratus

c. cirrostratus

d. nimbostratus

e. cumulus humilis

____ 17. An example of orographic clouds would be:

a. clouds forming over a warm ocean current.

b. clouds forming on the windward slope of a mountain.

c. clouds forming behind a jet airplane.

d. clouds formed by surface heating.

____ 18. An adiabatic chart is a useful tool for determining:

a. a station model.

b. isobars.

c. the wind speed.

d. the lifting condensation level.

____ 19. Which condition below is necessary for a layer of altostratus clouds to change into altocumulus?

a. The top part of the cloud deck cools while the bottom part warms.

b. Temperature increases with increasing altitude in the layer.

c. The cloud layer becomes more stable.

d. All of these

____ 20. Sinking air sometimes cools adiabatically.

a. true

b. false

____ 21. The environmental lapse rate is almost always the same as the adiabatic lapse rate.

a. true

b. false

____ 22. Conditional instability depends on the condition of:

a. fog.

b. low pressure.

c. wind.

d. saturation.

____ 23. If you observe large raindrops hitting the ground, you could probably say that the cloud overhead was ____ and had ____ updrafts.

a. thick; weak

b. thick; strong

c. thin; weak

d. thin; strong

____ 24. If rain falls on one side of a street and not on the other side, the rain most likely fell from a:

a. nimbostratus cloud.

b. stratus cloud.

c. cumulonimbus cloud.

d. altostratus cloud.

e. altocumulus cloud.

____ 25. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a. Generally, the smaller the pure water droplet, the lower the temperature at which it will freeze.

b. Ice nuclei are more plentiful in the atmosphere than condensation nuclei.

c. Much of the rain falling in middle northern latitudes begins as snow.

d. Ice crystals may grow in a cold cloud even though supercooled droplets do not.

____ 26. Supercooled cloud droplets are:

a. ice crystals surrounded by air warmer than 0°C (32°F).

b. liquid droplets that are cooler than the air around them.

c. liquid droplets observed at temperatures below 0°C (32°F).

d. water droplets that have had all their latent heat removed.

____ 27. At the same sub-freezing temperature, the saturation vapor pressure just above a liquid water surface is ____ the saturation vapor pressure above an ice surface.

a. greater than

b. the same as

c. less than

____ 28. Cloud seeding using silver iodide only works in:   

a. cold clouds composed entirely of ice crystals.

b. warm clouds composed entirely of water droplets.

c. cold clouds composed of ice crystals and supercooled droplets.

d. cumuliform clouds.

____ 29. The most common ice crystal shape:

a. graupel.

b. dendrite.

c. rime.

d. virga.

____ 30. Fall streaks usually ____ before reaching the ground.

a. evaporate

b. condense

c. sublimate

d. deposit

____ 31. Large, heavy snowflakes are associated with:

a. dry air and temperatures well below freezing.

b. moist air and temperatures well below freezing.

c. dry air and temperatures near freezing.

d. moist air and temperatures near freezing.

____ 32. Fall streaks most often form with:

a. nimbostratus clouds.

b. cumulonimbus clouds.

c. stratus clouds.

d. altostratus clouds.

e. cirrus clouds.

____ 33. Which of the following might be mistaken for hail?

a. virga

b. graupel

c. dendrite

d. supercooled droplet

____ 34. An amount of precipitation measured to be less than one hundredth of an inch (0.25 mm) is called:

a. a trace.

b. drizzle.

c. light rain.

d. mist.

____ 35. If a city were to receive 1/2 inch of rain in the morning and then 5 inches of snow that afternoon, about how much precipitation would the weather service report for that day?

a. 5 1/2 inches

b. 1/2 inch

c. 1 inch

d. 10 inches

____ 36. The water droplet and the ice crystal in the figure below have the same temperature. The saturation vapor pressure surrounding the water droplet will be ____ the saturation vapor pressure surrounding the ice crystal.

a. lower than

b. higher than

c. the same as

____ 37. Saturation vapor pressure ____ as temperature increases.

a. increases

b. decreases

c. can't answer: it depends on whether the cloud has ice crystals or cloud droplets.

____ 38. The surface pressures at the bases of warm and cold columns of air are equal. Air pressure in the warm  column of air will ____ with increasing height ____ than in the cold column.

a. decrease; more rapidly

b. decrease; more slowly

c. increase; more rapidly

d. increase; more slowly

____ 39. Suppose a parcel of air has a given temperature, pressure, and density. If the parcel's size remains the same while its temperature increases, then the air pressure inside the parcel will:

a. decrease.

b. decrease to but not lower than 1,000 mb.

c. increase.

d. remain constant.

____ 40. If surface air pressure decreases, the height of the column in a mercury barometer would:

a. remain constant.

b. increase.

c. decrease.

d. change momentarily, but return to its earlier reading.

____ 41. An aneroid barometer works on the principle that:

a. mercury will rise and descend in a tube when the air pressure changes.

b. the force of gravity decreases in strength with increasing altitude.

c. a small closed cell with most of its air removed will expand and contract with changes in air pressure.

d. a change in pressure causes a weak electrical signal in a ceramic detector.

e. a change in air pressure causes a simultaneous change in air temperature that is detected with a sensitive thermometer.

____ 42. The surface weather map is a sea level chart. Thus, a surface weather map is also called:

a. a constant pressure chart.

b. a constant height chart.

c. an isobaric chart.

d. a constant latitude chart.

____ 43. On a weather map, ridges are:

a. elongated low pressure areas.

b. dying hurricanes.

c. mountains that stall the movement of storms.

d. elongated high pressure areas.

e. tornadoes that touch the surface.

____ 44. The contour lines drawn on a 500 mb chart are lines of constant:

a. pressure.

b. altitude.

c. density.

d. wind direction.

____ 45. On an upper-level chart, normally we find warm air associated with ____ pressure, and cold air associated with ____ pressure.

a. high; high

b. high; low

c. low; low

d. low; high

____ 46. Which of the following can influence wind direction?

a. Coriolis force

b. pressure gradient force

c. centripetal force

d. all of these

____ 47. Which of the following forces CANNOT act to change the speed of the wind?

a. pressure gradient force

b. frictional force

c. Coriolis force

d. none of these

____ 48. Which of the statements below is NOT correct concerning the pressure gradient force?

a. The PGF points from high to low pressure in the Northern Hemisphere.

b. It is non-existent at the equator.

c. It can cause the wind to speed up or slow down.

d. The PGF points from high to low pressure in the Southern Hemisphere.

____ 49. The rate of the earth's rotation determines the strength of the:

a. pressure gradient force.

b. Coriolis force.

c. frictional force.

d. gravitational force.

____ 50. Suppose that the winds aloft are geostrophic and blowing from the north. Low pressure is located to the:

a. north.

b. south.

c. east.

d. west.

____ 51. If in the Northern Hemisphere the upper level winds above you are blowing from the south, then it is a good bet that a trough of low pressure is to the ____ of you.

a. north

b. south

c. east

d. west

____ 52. The wind around a surface low pressure center in the Southern Hemisphere blows:

a. counterclockwise and outward from the center.

b. counterclockwise and inward toward the center.

c. clockwise and outward from the center.

d. clockwise and inward toward the center.

____ 53. Cyclonic flow means ____ in either the Northern or Southern Hemisphere.

a. clockwise wind flow

b. counterclockwise flow

c. circulation around a low pressure center

d. circulation around a high pressure center

Exhibit 8-4

____ 54. Refer to Exhibit 8-4. Assuming that the figure above is in the northern hemisphere, the wind will end up

blowing in a:

a. clockwise direction.

b. counterclockwise direction.

Exhibit 8-5

____ 55. Refer to Exhibit 8-5. The figure above depicts ____ winds.

a. surface-level

b. upper-air

____ 56. The smallest scale of atmospheric motion is the:

a. mesoscale.

b. synoptic scale.

c. microscale.

d. macroscale.

e. global scale.

____ 57. Thermal turbulence above the surface is usually most severe:

a. immediately after sunset.

b. at the time of maximum surface heating.

c. around midnight.

d. just before sunrise.

e. about midmorning, or soon after the minimum temperature is reached.

____ 58. The top of the friction layer is usually found near what altitude?

a. 100 m (330 ft)

b. 500 m (1,640 ft)

c. 1,000 m (3,300 ft)

d. 5,000 m (16,400 ft)

____ 59. Surface winds are generally strongest and most gusty:

a. in the afternoon.

b. in the early morning.

c. around midnight.

d. just after sunset.

e. just before sunrise.

____ 60. Clear air turbulence often occurs near a boundary of high wind shear.

a. true

b. false

____ 61. The size and shape of a turbulent eddy depend on:

a. the size of the obstacle.

b. the shape of the obstacle.

c. the speed of the wind.

d. all of these

e. only size and shape of the obstacle.

____ 62. Suppose a west wind of 20 knots blows over a coastal region which is densely covered in shrubs. If this same wind moves out over the middle of a large calm lake, its speed and direction would probably be:

a. greater than 20 knots and more northwesterly.

b. less than 20 knots and more northwesterly.

c. greater than 20 knots and more southwesterly.

d. less than 20 knots and more southwesterly.

e. less than 20 knots and westerly.

____ 63. An instrument used to measure wind speed is called a(n):

a. anemometer.

b. ceilometer.

c. psychrometer.

d. tachometer.

____ 64. A wind reported as 225° would be a wind blowing from the:

a. NE.

b. NW.

c. SE.

d. SW.

____ 65. Which of the instruments below indicates both wind speed and wind direction?

a. wind vane

b. aerovane

c. cup anemometer

d. psychrometer

e. theodolite

____ 66. During the summer in humid climates, nighttime clouds tend to form over water during a:

a. land breeze.

b. chinook wind.

c. sea breeze.

d. Santa Ana wind.

____ 67. A sea breeze circulation will reverse direction and become a land breeze:

a. once every few days.

b. at the beginning and the end of the summer.

c. several times per day.

d. once per day.

____ 68. A cool, summertime wind that blows from sea to land is called a:

a. Santa Ana wind.

b. land breeze.

c. valley breeze.

d. sea breeze.

____ 69. Clouds and precipitation are frequently found on the downwind side of a large lake. This would indicate that the air on the downwind side is:

a. converging and rising.

b. converging and sinking.

c. diverging and sinking.

d. diverging and rising.

____ 70. Monsoon depressions are:

a. huge drainage gullies that are produced during the heavy rains in the summer monsoon.

b. upper-level jet streams.

c. low pressure areas that enhance rainfall during the summer monsoon.

d. large reservoirs used for irrigation that fill with water during the summer monsoon.

e. a period of generally good weather with lower-than-average rainfall that may last for several days during the otherwise rainy summer monsoon.

____ 71. A valley breeze would develop its maximum strength:

a. at sunrise.

b. in early afternoon.

c. about an hour after sunset.

d. about midnight.

____ 72. The heat from a chinook wind is generated mainly by:

a. compressional heating.

b. sunlight.

c. warm, ocean water.

d. friction with the ground.

e. forest fires.

____ 73. The main reason Santa Ana winds are warm is because:

a. latent heat is released in rising air.

b. sinking air warms by compression.

c. condensation occurs.

d. solar heating warms the air.

e. they are heated by forest fires in canyons.

____ 74. Another name for a small, rotating whirlwind observed at the surface is:

a. seiche.

b. haboob.

c. rotor.

d. dust devil.

e. foehn.

____ 75. Strong winds blowing over a mountain may produce surface winds that blow in the opposite direction (see

the diagram below).


a. true.

b. false.

____ 76. The figure below shows a layer of relatively fast moving air overlying a layer of more slowly moving air. Where would you expect eddies and turbulent air motions to form?

a. in the top layer

b. in the bottom layer

c. in the boundary between the two layers

____ 77. The clouds shown in the figure below most likely form during the ____ when the land is ____ than the water.

a. night; colder

b. night; warmer

c. day; colder

d. day; warmer

____ 78. Which of the following is a serious hazard to aircraft?

a. molecular viscosity

b. laminar flow

c. clear-air turbulence

d. longwaves in the westerlies

e. none of these

____ 79. Which below is NOT an assumption of the single-cell model of the general circulation of the atmosphere?

a. The earth's surface is covered with water.

b. The earth rotates once in 24 hours.

c. The sun is always overhead at the equator.

d. none of these

____ 80. In terms of the three-cell model of the general circulation, areas of surface low pressure should be found at:

a. the equator and the poles.

b. the equator and 30° latitude.

c. the equator and 60° latitude.

d. 30° latitude and 60° latitude.

e. 30° latitude and the poles.

____ 81. At Barrow, Alaska (latitude 70°N), you would expect the prevailing wind to be:

a. northerly.

b. easterly.

c. southerly.

d. westerly.

____ 82. According to the three-cell general circulation model, at the equator we would not expect to find:

a. the ITCZ.

b. a ridge of high pressure.

c. cumuliform clouds.

d. light winds.

e. heavy showers.

____ 83. On a weather map of the Northern Hemisphere, one would observe the westerlies:

a. north of the subpolar lows.

b. south of the tropical highs.

c. between the doldrums and the horse latitudes.

d. between the subpolar lows and the subtropical highs.

____ 84. On a weather map of the Northern Hemisphere, the trade winds would be observed:

a. north of the polar front.

b. between the polar front and the subtropical highs.

c. south of the subtropical highs.

d. between the subpolar lows and the subtropical highs.


____ 85. In the general circulation of the atmosphere, one would find the region called the doldrums:

a. near 30° latitude.

b. at the equator.

c. at the poles.

d. near 60° latitude.

____ 86. Which of the following is not considered a semi-permanent high or low pressure area?

a. Bermuda high

b. Aleutian low

c. Siberian high

d. Pacific high

e. Icelandic high

____ 87. In the Northern Hemisphere, ocean currents in the Atlantic and the Pacific move in a generally circular pattern. The direction of this motion is ____ in the Atlantic and ____ in the Pacific.

a. clockwise; counterclockwise

b. counterclockwise; counterclockwise

c. clockwise; clockwise

d. counterclockwise; clockwise

____ 88. The Ekman Spiral describes:

a. the turning of water with depth.

b. the air flow into a center of low pressure.

c. the circulation of surface water around a gyre.

d. the air flow out of a region of high pressure.

e. the wind-flow pattern in a jet stream.

____ 89. A condition where the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean turns cooler than normal is called:

a. El Niño.

b. La Niña.

c. the Southern Oscillation.

d. the Ekman Spiral.














ANSWERS KEY (CHAPTER 1 – General Meteorology-Part IV)

1. ANS: C                     2. ANS: C                     3. ANS: B

4. ANS: B                     5. ANS: A                    6. ANS: E

7. ANS: A                    8. ANS: A                    9. ANS: B

10. ANS: C                   11. ANS: A                   12. ANS: D

13. ANS: D                   14. ANS: A                   15. ANS: A

16. ANS: A                   17. ANS: B                   18. ANS: D

19. ANS: A                   20. ANS: B                   21. ANS: B

22. ANS: D                   23. ANS: B                   24. ANS: C

25. ANS: B                   26. ANS: C                   27. ANS: A

28. ANS: C                   29. ANS: B                   30. ANS: C

31. ANS: D                   32. ANS: E                   33. ANS: B

34. ANS: A                   35. ANS: C                   36. ANS: B

37. ANS: A                   38. ANS: B                   39. ANS: C

40. ANS: C                   41. ANS: C                   42. ANS: B

43. ANS: D                   44. ANS: B                   45. ANS: B

46. ANS: D                   47. ANS: C                   48. ANS: B

49. ANS: B                   50. ANS: C                   51. ANS: D

52. ANS: D                   53. ANS: C                   54. ANS: A

55. ANS: A                   56. ANS: C                   57. ANS: B

58. ANS: C                   59. ANS: A                   60. ANS: A

61. ANS: D                   62. ANS: A                   63. ANS: A

64. ANS: D                   65. ANS: B                   66. ANS: A

67. ANS: D                   68. ANS: D                   69. ANS: A

70. ANS: C                   71. ANS: B                   72. ANS: A

73. ANS: B                   74. ANS: D                   75. ANS: A

76. ANS: C                   77. ANS: D                   78. ANS: C

79. ANS: B                   80. ANS: C                   81. ANS: B

82. ANS: B                   83. ANS: D                   84. ANS: C

85. ANS: B                   86. ANS: C                   87. ANS: C

88. ANS: A                   89. ANS: B






QUESTIONS (The Atmosphere)

1. State the percent by volume of the following gases in the Earth’s atmosphere (at surface level in dry air). Round to the nearest whole percent.

Oxygen: ______

Argon: ______

Nitrogen: ______


2. Give an estimation of the current ppm (parts per million) concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. _______


3. In what layer of the atmosphere is there a temperature inversion?

a) troposphere

b) stratosphere

c) mesosphere

d) ionosphere

e) thermosphere


4. Which layer of the atmosphere has the lowest average temperature?

a) troposphere

b) stratosphere

c) mesosphere

d) ionosphere

e) thermosphere


5. Which layer of the atmosphere has the lowest amount of thermal energy?

a) troposphere

b) stratosphere

c) mesosphere

d) ionosphere

e) thermosphere


6. Briefly explain why the eruption of Mount Pinatubo caused a global temperature decrease of 0.5 degrees Celsius in 1991.



ANSWER KEY (Chapter 2 – The Atmosphere)

1. 21%, 1%, 78%

2. any number from 350-400 ppm

3. B

4. C

5. A

6. The eruption of the volcano released a large amount of aerosols into the atmosphere, which blocked out sunlight and thus decreased world temperatures. [3 points]






QUESTIONS (Solar Radiation)

1. Rank the following surfaces from 1-5 based on their albedo, 1 being the highest and 5 being the lowest.

___ grassy field

___ fresh snow

___ forest

___ clouds

___ ocean


2. Two cities have the same mean annual temperatures. Explain why this does not imply that their temperatures throughout the year are similar.



3. Which of the following correctly describes sunspots?

a) the sunspot itself is cooler than the surrounding corona; the more sunspots, the less solar radiation the sun emits

b) the sunspot itself is warmer than the surrounding corona; the more sunspots, the less solar radiation the sun emits

c) the sunspot itself is cooler than the surrounding corona; the more sunspots, the more solar radiation the sun emits

d) the sunspot itself is warmer than the surrounding corona; the more sunspots, the more solar radiation the sun emits

4. Approximately how many hours of daylight does a person standing at the South Pole receive on the summer solstice?

a) 0

b) 8

c) 12

d) 16

e) 24

5. Which of the following has the greatest effect on a location’s temperature during a given season?

a) average daily duration of solar radiation

b) average daily intensity of re-radiated solar radiation

c) average daily percentage of solar radiation reflected by clouds

d) average daily angle of solar radiation

6. Harrison is standing at 30 degrees south latitude. What would be the measure of the angle between his line of sight and the apparent position of the sun on the winter solstice?

a) 7.5 degrees

b) 30 degrees

c) 53.5 degrees

d) 60 degrees

e) 83.5 degrees





ANSWER KEY (CHAPTER 3 Solar Radiation)

1. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 (Harrison, confirm this?) [3 points for all 5, 1 point for 3-4 correct]

2. The mean annual temperature does not reflect temperature variation throughout the year. [2 points]

3. C

4. A

5. D

6. E






















1. Briefly explain the difference between weather and climate.



2. Briefly explain the difference between a continental climate and a coastal climate.



3. Which of the following climate zones is typically subject to the greatest diurnal variation in temperature?

a) humid subtropical

b) arctic

c) arid

d) Mediterranean

4. Why is Anchorage, Alaska considered to have a subarctic climate under the Koppen climate classification system?

a) it receives over 75 inches of snowfall every year

b) it is located only a few degrees of latitude south of the Arctic Circle

c) average temperatures there exceed 10 degrees Celsius for between 1 and 3 months of the year

d) it is located adjacent to a cold ocean current


5. Which of the following best describes a climate that is heavily influenced by monsoons?

a) wet and rainy year-round

b) wet and rainy for part of the year, then very dry for the remainder of the year

c) hot and dry year-round

d) moderated by the trade winds


6. Most of the world’s deserts (excluding Antarctica) are located at:

a) 0 degrees north latitude to 15 degrees north latitude

b) 15 degrees north latitude to 30 degrees north latitude

c) 30 degrees north latitude to 45 degrees north latitude

d) 45 degrees north latitude to 60 degrees north latitude


7. A location at 45.5 degrees N latitude exhibits the following climate data:

Which of the following would best classify its climate under the Koppen classification system?

a) temperate semi-arid

b) humid subtropical

c) humid continental

d) subarctic


8. A location at 39 degrees N latitude exhibits the following climate data:

Classify its climate under the Koppen classification system. _____________________



9. A location at 44 degrees N latitude exhibits the following climate data:

Classify its climate under the Koppen classification system. _____________________________


10. A location at 37 degrees N latitude exhibits the following climate data:

Classify its climate under the Koppen classification system. _____________________________


11. Choose all of the following that are NOT true:

I. The Koppen climate classification system is based on both the temperature and annual amount of precipitation of a region

II. A city that is classified as having a humid continental climate under the Koppen classification system would possibly have a Thornthwaite index of -20

III. The Thronthwaite system of climate classification is not directly based on temperature

a) I only

b) II only

c) III only

d) II and III only

e) I, II, and III


12. Name the semi-permanent high pressure system that influences the angle of the jet stream along the eastern coast of North America during the Northern Hemisphere hurricane season._____________



13. Match the following terms with their location in the corresponding picture, identified by the numbers.


1. _____                      A. Hadley cell

2. _____                      B. northeasterly trade winds

3. _____                      C. westerlies

4. _____                      D. polar cell

5. _____                      E. southeasterly trade winds

6. _____                      F. Ferrel cell

7. _____                             G. polar easterlies


14. Which of the following wind patterns is known for causing rapid warm-ups in winter weather along the northwestern United States via adiabatic warming?

a) Chinook

b) Haboob

c) Panhandle hook

d) Santa Ana


15. What is the main driving force in the thermohaline circulation (ocean conveyer belt)?



16. During El Nino, the cool, nutrient-rich sea water normally found along the coast of Peru is replaced by warmer water depleted of nutrients. Describe the effect of this phenomenon on Peru’s economy.



17. About how often does El Nino occur?

a) annually

b) every 5 years

c) variable; anywhere from a few years to decades

d) every decade

e) every century

18. During El Nino, the easterly trade winds weaken. Why does this cause thunderstorm and flood-like conditions for eastern South America (Peru and Ecuador), yet dry conditions for Indonesia and Australia?




1. Weather describes day-to-day atmospheric interactions, while climate is weather observed over longer periods of time, taking into account trends and significant anomalies. [3 points]

2. A continental climate has greater temperature variation throughout the year than does a coastal climate. [2 points]

3. C

4. C

5. B

6. B

7. C

8. humid subtropical

9. subarctic

10. Mediterranean

11. B

12. Bermuda high

13. A, F, D, G, C, B, E [1 point each]

14. D

15. density of warm vs. cold water; density of saline vs. pure water [3 points; 1 point if only one is named]

16. Fish cannot survive in such nutrient-poor waters; because the fishing industry is a large part of Peru’s economy, it suffers greatly. [3 points]

17. B

18. Warm water is no longer pushed to the west by the easterly trade winds. The resulting upwelling of warm water near the coast of South America fuels thunderstorms, while the loss of warm water in Australia and Indonesia creates a lack of rain. [5 points; partial credit can be given]